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> And do you believe that the persons who in various cultures would be called “black” but are actually genetically 95+% “white” would be more likely to suffer from that?

Individuals and populations are different.

> Such risk factors do not of course care about arbitrary cultural racial classifications which are often noted to be asymmetrically contagious in various cultures.

Risk factors may not care but individuals in at-risk populations are likely care that knowledge of different risks to them, based on their race or not, is available.

> If that be their intent, they firstly communicate it poorly and should have simply said so, and secondly it's useless.

That's your contention, I'm yet to see a cogent argument or any evidence for this.

> Again, in various countries with a majority nonwhite population, a person who might genetically be 5% white, and 95% local population could conceivably be termed “white”: — is it their intention and your contention that the results of this research may then be applied to such a person that is effectively genetically close to local population?

Reading this, it is my belief that you have missed the point of the authors intent, the reasons for using race as a category in medicine, and all of the arguments put forth to you.



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